I am a bit confused about the dose of antipsychotics given to the monkeys in the study. I have heard some researchers say that the monkeys got a high dose, but that seems wrong to me. In the section "Drug Preparation and Administration" in the paper, the authors say:
"Consequently, in this study, we sought to obtain plasma levels of 1-1.5 ng/ml for haloperidol and of 10-25 ng/ml for olanzapine."
The authors refer to McEvoy et al. (McEvoy et al., 1986; McEvoy et al., 1991) and their concept of "neuroleptic threshold dosing." The chosen plasma levels should correspond to this.
Is this not a low dose? And is it not actually much lower than the doses used in schizophrenia treatment?
I would be glad for any comment on this. Thanks.
McEvoy JP, Hogarty GE, Steingard S (1991). Optimal dose of neuroleptic in acute schizophrenia. A controlled study of the neuroleptic threshold and higher haloperidol dose. Arch Gen Psychiatry 48: 739-745. Abstract
McEvoy JP, Stiller RL, Farr R (1986). Plasma haloperidol levels drawn at neuroleptic threshold doses: a pilot study. J Clin Psychopharmacol 6: 133-138. AbstractView all comments by Lennart Borgman